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How far would you support the view that 1637 marked the highpoint of Charles I personal rule?
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How far would you support the view that 1637 marked the highpoint of Charles I personal rule?
Charles' personal rule started in 1629 after the second session of his third Parliament ended in arguments and disagreements between King and Parliament about the methods (tonnage and poundage) Charles used to generate personal income. Charles adjourned Parliament during this session and Parliament declared three resolutions that would force Charles into personal rule and isolation from Parliament and its wealth.
Charles had to contend with a lot of problems in his personal rule. Most importantly was the issue of how to finance himself and the country without the availability of Parliament. Charles had only two ways to do this, first was to decrease the amount of expenditure, secondly was to generate more income.
Charles set his sights on the current war with France and Spain and signed a peace accord with them; this increased profit margins as war with one nation was a heavy burden on finance let alone two.
Charles also exploited existing methods of generating income, especially those available to him through royal prerogative; he reinstated a law from 1278 that required all those with an income
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