Why does Locke's political theory contain an account of property rights? Does this account succeed in serving his purpose?

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Why does Locke’s political theory contain an account of property rights? Does this account succeed in serving his purpose?

Locke, following Hobbes, based his second treatise on the state of nature. However for Locke the state of nature was a moral code whereas for Hobbes it was essentially behavioural. Locke, who with many of his time was deeply religious, based his politics on the moral obligation of man to God, by way of a set of duties owed to Him. Locke argued that self-preservation was important, as with this comes the freedom to continue to discharge ones duty to God.

Locke spent the vast majority of his first treatise forming a critique of Robert Filmer’s Patriarcha. Filmer argued that as God granted Adam the right to private property and that the monarchs of the world were descended from Adam, then all property within their dominion was their private property. However Locke argues that God gave the world to man in common and that ‘every Man has a Property in his own Person. Locke then goes on to state that man may take private property on three conditions. The first is labour, the second that there must be ‘enough, and as good left in common for others’ and finally that man can only take what he can use without spoiling.

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The condition of labour is not a simple one but is the main basis for Locke’s views. Locke claims that man has a right to any produce which is borne from the mixing of his labour with land, and that it is his property and therefore excludes others from the use of it. Locke uses the example of acorns or other such fruits, he says that if a person picks these fruits from the tree then the fruits become his property but nothing stops another from picking from the same tree however if he were to improve upon the ...

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