Is the claim 'within' the Islamic family, the father rules accurate

In Pre-Islamic Arabia during the Prophet Mohammad’s lifetime he veiled his wives to stop them from being starred at and so Muslim men now veil their wives because they want to show true obedience to Allah’s commands just like Mohammad did and they believe if they follow the Sunnah (life example of Mohammad) they will live a perfect Muslim life.

The teaching of Islam is that women should have total equality in religion and education, the Qur’an states ‘Whoever works righteous, man or woman and has faith, verily to him will We give a new life (16:97) but however there is no doubt that Islam has raised the status of women from what it had been in Arabia but as you can see from the Qur’anic verse ‘Women have the same rights in relation to their husbands as are expected in all decency of them; while men stand a step above them’ (2:222) men and women can never be fully equal in Islam.  Even though they have the right to inherit they are only entitled to ½ the share of a man, but this is seen as generous since it is the role of men to maintain all women and children in their family.

Even though it is seen from all this the men rule nit isn’t accurate because the status detached to the woman is very high as the Hadith states ‘Paradise lies at the feet of your mother’ in other words those who respect and cherish their mothers will go to paradise on the Day of Judgement.

So in conclusion it may seem the father may have more power however with that comes a lot of duties and responsibilities to perform, as you can see from the Qur’anic verse ‘The man has full responsibility for the maintenance of his family’ (4:34).  So therefore the share of the mans inheritance is more than the woman’s is because his need is seen to be greater and its seen that women should be spared from the struggles and worries so that she can give full attention to the home and family.