Concentrating on act 3 scene 1 of Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet, how effective do you think the Zeffirelli and Luhrmann film versions are in relation to your own interpretation of the play?

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Concentrating on act 3 scene 1 of Shakespeare's Romeo and Juliet, how effective do you think the Zeffirelli and Luhrmann film versions are in relation to your own interpretation of the play?

Shakespeare's tragic tale of  "two star-cross'd lovers" has survived centuries of political and social upheaval to become one of the most popular and well-known plays of all time. Both Zeffirelli and Luhrmann have seized this opportunity to put their stamp on a literary landmark.

     It is important to recognise the original context before examining the film versions. Shakespeare set the play in the 16th century, in the Mediterranean city of Verona. Zeffirelli adapted his 1968 version to the 13th century, in the dry, dusty streets of pseudo-Italia. Luhrmann took an entirely different approach with his 1997 film, with a mixture of futurism and kitsch that leads us to doubt the exact era, whilst incorporating the Italian setting into a place of his own devising, Verona Beach. In this way Luhrmann could manipulate the text to suit the setting, while gaining the empathy of both his demanding "generation-x" audience, and the more critical students of the original play.

     This scene is pivotal to the rest of the play, as without it there would be no tragedy. However, within the scene there is much ambiguity surrounding tone and the relationship between characters, as well as the continuous references to "Fate". This has provided the two filmmakers with much scope for interpretation, as well as giving them the challenge of portraying such a well-known play in an entirely new light.

     Fate is a key influence in most Shakespearean plays, being a handy and irrefutable scapegoat for any otherwise anomalous events. In this play the role of fate is intertwined with the catalysis of the characters' actions, so that one could argue it is entirely responsible, or has nothing to do with, the tragic ends to the play, according to which theory best suits your point. This is best illustrated by a line in the chorus: "from forth the fatal loins of these two foes". Fatal has two meanings- "predestined" and "deadly". With this one line Shakespeare manages to sum up the play in its entirety- the malicious actions of the parents leads to the inevitable death of their children.

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     There are many changes of tone within this scene, centred mainly around Romeo's entrances and exits. The beginning of the scene is playful, with Mercutio taunting Benvolio about his tendency to quarrel. Mercutio accuses Benvolio of being "as hot a jack in [his] mood as any in Italy!" Benvolio is known to be an incurable peacekeeper from his earlier actions, and so at surface-level this conversation may seem contradictory of the rest of the play. However, soon after one realises that this is really a reference to Mercutio himself, and that the scene is prophetic of events to ...

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