How far can Shakespeare's presentation of Lady Macbeth and Macbeth be seen as typical of their gender?

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How far can Shakespeare’s presentation of Lady Macbeth and Macbeth be seen as typical of their gender?  

Shakespeare’s plays were written in a period of time, which we relate to people from by calling them ‘Elizabethans’. However ‘Macbeth’ was written in 1606, after the death of Queen Elizabeth I during the kingship of the newly appointed James VI of Scotland (now James I of England). The play was written with the new king in mind and was based around the chronicles of Scotland. Despite this, Shakespeare still changed details within the chronicles, for instance, Banquo within the real story was actually guilty, but being an ancestor of King James, within the play he made him into an innocent character.

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Religion although not being mentioned much in ‘Macbeth’, the play still relates to evil and spirits which Lady Macbeth also relates to within the play. During this period of time women would be persecuted for this so in a way she goes against all aspects of the typical women. Within the time it was written James I believed of ‘the divine rights of kings’, this basically states how that of the Gods appoints kings, being in a time of great religion many men would have also thought this. Macbeth however obviously doesn’t as he kills Duncan to become the ...

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