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In Malcomes final speech he describes Lady Macbeth as a fiend like "queen". Explain how far you think this description of her is justified

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In Malcomes final speech he describes Lady Macbeth as a fiend like "queen". Explain how far you think this description of her is justified Lady Macbeth is a very essential character to the play. She is singly responsible for the most tragedy and destruction throughout the play. She is very responsible because she is the one who talks to and persuades Macbeth. But she cannot be purely seen as an evil influence for she is a much more complex character then many would think. We first see Lady Macbeth in act one, scene five when she is reading the letter that Macbeth sent her. When reading the letter, she reads it in an innocent ladylike voice that we will not see much of until later on in the script. As she calmly reads the letter you can see her slowly spiralling towards the more evil sinister way. The letter is read as if he was writing it to his "Dearest partner of greatness". He treats her with a lot of respect as if she is an equal. This would seem to be very awkward to an audience in the Shakespearean era for women were seen to be inferior to men. She decides on Macbeth's behalf that they are to kill the King Duncan, without Macbeths approval. ...read more.


She will get louder and louder until the servant walks in and after he leaves she will continue walking from side to side getting louder and louder until her husband enters and a red light will fade in as she explains the plot to Macbeth. The second time we see her is when she is at dinner acting sweet and innocent when at heart she is completely evil and filled with hate and gall. Duncan ironically and innocently speaks of sweet and good air which has a ironic relationship to Lady Macbeths earlier quote "The dunnest smokes of hell" in the last scene. In Act 1, Scene 7 we see Lady Macbeth for the third time. She is alone in the bedroom with Macbeth discussing their hidden sinister plan to kill king Duncan and steal his throne. In this scene we can see again how much influence on Macbeth, Lady Macbeth has. Macbeth decides that he wishes not to conduct in this evil scheme any further, but once again Lady Macbeth bends and twists Macbeths mind to see the opportinity the way she does. An audience would again be surprised to see a women taking more or less complete control over Macbeth. Her character would seem very masculine and the power over Macbeth would seem to be some sort of witch's spell, again making her seem more evil than she really is. ...read more.


In this last scene with her, as she fall apart we can see all her greed and wickedness being stripped from her just leaving her an image of pure, innocent child like women. As Lady Macbeth becomes mentality ill and losses all her influence and greed it is as if Macbeth and his wife have swooped feelings and brains. Her obsession with a "damned spot" of blood which she cannot remove from her hand contrasts with her attitude to the blood after Duncan's murder, when she says: "A little water cleans us of this deed" The way an actress would perform this scene would be very different from the way she would act in Act 1 Scene. Her face would be pale and without make-up, and she would wear a white nightdress to suggest return to a vulnerable childlike state. Her voice would be frail and trembling, and some lines, such as "The Thane of Fife had a wife" would be spoken like child reciting a nursery rhyme. Referring back to the title question, I think that Lady Macbeth cannot be fully justified as a "Fiend" for she is a normal women who is corrupted by greed and I am sure that many people in the same situation would be very tempted to do something similar. Written by Sean Wallace ...read more.

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