The Merchant Of Venice - With particular reference to Act 4 scene 1 how far is Shylock presented as a victim or a villain within the play?

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The Merchant Of Venice

With particular reference to Act 4 scene 1 how far is Shylock presented as a victim or a villain within the play?  

Introduction.

The play The Merchant Of Venice was written in a time of anti Semitism. There was a great divide between the Jewish and Christian religion when Shakespeare wrote this play.  He wanted to put these religions together and predict a miscellaneous ending. He does this by punishing Shylock for choosing law over love and mercy. There are two different ways of looking at this play. The modern audience would have different views and opinions of the play and it would have been acted out differently. I am looking at a modern point of view, so Shylock is presented with a more human side to an alternative of a stereotypical Jew. Shakespeare teaches us the values he believes in, through the character Portia.

     Throughout this play shylock is shown as both victim and a villain. I have pin pointed the scenes in which this has happened, giving quotes, explanations and backing my answers up . I will then try to justify how far shylock is perceived as a victim or a villan.  

Act 1 scene 3 holds many points to show shylock as a victim and a villain. We begin to see these factors.

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In act 1 scene 3 when shylock says “fair sir, you spat on me Wednesday last, you spurned me such a day, another time you called me dog” this presents Shylock as a victim as Antonio has “spurned” “spat” and “called me dog” to shylock.  We are made to feel sympathy for Shylock.

We then see shylock as a different character when he asks for a pound of Antonio’s flesh. “ Of your fair flesh, to be cut off and taken” we see Shylock as a villan in this piece shown above, but small parts of this contradict this ...

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