What evidence is there to indicate that the poems were written in the 17th and 18th centuries and not in the modern era?

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What evidence is there to indicate that the poems were written in the 17th and 18th centuries and not in the modern era?

I have studied three poems. Two were written by John Keats (To Autumn and La Belle Dame Sans Merci). Also there is another one written by John Dryden. The two poems written by John Keats were written in between 1795 and 1821. John Drydens poem 'The fire of LOndon' was written in between 1631-1700.

To Autumn (John Keats)

This poem is describing Autumn. John Keats is personifying autumn through out."Conspiring with him"

Since this poem was written in the eighteenth century the way of life has now changed"or by a cider-press"

This means cider is an Autumn drink, nowadays cider is drank all year round.

Later flowers for the bees" Usually today in the 21st century bees are disturbed either by people or traffic. Back then bees were around everywhere collecting honey. These are two differences between today and the 17/18th century.

"With fruit vines that round the thatch-eaves run" Nowadays not alot of fruit is left alone, it is picked and sold in mass produced. Back then only a few products would be picked due to market stalls selling fruit. Also to my knowledge we do not use the word "thatch eaves" or "Aye" or "Borne" (this would be spelt born now not borne)

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"Thou", "Dost", "Thy", "O'erbrimm'd" and "Poppies"(poppys spelt differently now) in this poem the Language and spelling are different from the modern era.

He describes Autumn as the "season of mists and mellow fruitfulness" "close bosom-friend of the maturing sun" Maturing means fading. It says this because in the Autumn or "To Autumn"

the goes down quicker in the evening and the weather gets dimmer, so the sun matures (fades) and so does the weather.

"Later flowers for the bees" this meaning the flower that blooms in the early autumn/ late summer are being swarmed by bees that are collecting honey.

"Where ...

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