"Germany must bear ultimate responsibility for the outbreak of the First World War." How far do you agree with this judgment?

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“Germany must bear ultimate responsibility for the outbreak of the First World War.” How far do you agree with this judgment?

        Although Germans had a great part in the outbreak of the First World War, all responsibility must not lay on her, for she was not the only country involved in the outbreak. Many will argue that “Germany must bear ultimate responsibility for the outbreak,” but historical evidence proves that this is not so.

        First of all, it is Serbia who provoked the initiation of the First World War. This provocation came in the assassination of Austria’s Archduke Ferdinand and his wife, by a Pan-Slavic nationalist. This problem would not have escalated to greater lengths if the Serbian government had warned the Austrian-Hungarian government of the intended plot to murder their Archduke, of which they had knowledge. When the Austrian government learned that the Serbian government had known of the plot to kill their Archduke, of course they felt resentment and betrayal. The only thing the Austrian government looked forward to was capturing those involved in the murder. This is where Austria became involved in the outbreak of the war.

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        Following the discovery, Austria left Serbia with an ultimatum. This ultimatum demanded a full investigation into the assassination and went to say that the Serbian government stop supporting propaganda, etc. All the stipulations of the ultimatum were accepted by the Serbian government, except for one, which gave Hungarians the right to punish those Serbian officials suspected of having been involved in the crime. Refusing to accept this stipulation, the Serbian government refused to accept the entire ultimatum. This refusal caused Austria to declare war on Serbian, on July 28. Although historian John G. Stoessinger says in Why Nations Go To ...

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