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To what extent do you agree with the treaty of Versailles related to Germany was justified both Politically and Morally?

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To what extent do you agree with the treaty of Versailles related to Germany was justified both Politically and Morally? After the First World War (or the great war) the German sued for peace this peace treaty was to be held at Versailles, which is just outside Paris. Although this seemed a fairly natural place to have the peace agreement it was also the French getting back at the Germans. The Germans had held a peace treaty at the end of the Franco Prussian war (1870-71) at Versailles and this for said treaty was very humiliating to the French in both the terms and the fact that they had lost to the newly founded Germany; It was also a practical place for all the leaders to come to. The treaty had several main clauses these were that the Germans had to accept the war guilt and they had to pay reparations to all the allies except Russia who had drooped out of the war. The Germans also had to reduce the size of her armed forces from what it was at the end of the war to one hundred thousand men, she also was not allowed conscription, armoured vehicles ...read more.


As I have already said many people do object to the treaty of the Versailles however it is only for two of its clauses that people have big objections about these two clauses are firstly reparations and secondly war guilt there is also a slight bit of controversy over separating Germany into two however not many people have a problem with this. Firstly then reparations, at the time of the treaty of Versailles everyone thought that Germany should pay reparations even people like Woodrow Wilson. However in this agreement there were many disagreement with France being very extreme suggesting the sum of 3 billion pounds for just France, and the U.S.A. being very lapse. There was of course a middle ground and Britain stood there however they were swayed more to the French by the public opinion of the British public. Of course all of the countries had financial advisors to calculate how much it would cost Germany however they all seem to have had different opinions thus it is very probable that they influenced by their governments and put out the figure that suited them. ...read more.


Because they are better equipped and trained for its rules and intricacies than any of their adversaries."2 This of course is a point worth thinking about for it certainly justifies the need to have reparitons for Germany. The argument for having reparations is that the Germany has to pay damages for the damage she has caused (this is or course what reparations means compensation for war damage by the deafet state3 ). Thus there would seemingly be no problem for Germany to pay a ceratin amount of money for reparations thus the condition for paying repartion is justified. There is however the big problem as to how much Germany would have to pay in reparations. The amount that Germany had to pay did vary massovly with huge hyperboles from some of the powers e.g. the French finance minister M. Klotz estimated the damage done to France to be �5,360,000,000 however later the British ambasoder in paris estimated the damages to be about �859,000,000 which is almost 14 billion pounds less and some made huge understatements for example the one of the leading people in finance in America estimated it at only �3,000,000,000 which is tiny compared to the actual sum. Andrew Ho How justified was the 01/05/2007 Treaty of Versailles Page1 ...read more.

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