State and Assess Two Different Objections to the Cosmological Argument.

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State and Assess Two Different Objections to the Cosmological Argument

The three main versions of the cosmological argument are the kalam argument, the chain of causes argument and the argument from contingency.  The two objections to the cosmological argument that I will state and assess in this essay both object to the argument from contingency.  I have chosen to focus on objections to this version of the argument because I believe it to be the most persuasive and the most open to criticism of the three.  Leibniz first posited the Argument from contingency and his line of thought can be summed up as follows.  Everything that is contingent in the universe must have a reason.  That reason can be either contingent or necessary.  If it is contingent then it must have a reason.  This sequence continues until ultimately a necessary reason (or being) is reached, this necessary being is God.  The first objection to this argument which I will look at has been put forward by J.L. Mackie.  His criticism relies on the refutation of the principle of sufficient reason, that ‘nothing occurs without a sufficient reason’.  I will endeavor to show how this criticism of the argument is weak.  I will then move on to look at a criticism of the argument from contingency as put forward separately by Mackie and David Hume.  I consider this criticism to be the stronger of the two.  Hume attacks the idea of a ‘demonstrative proof of an existential proposition’ a position which Mackie borrows heavily from, arguing that a necessary being is not a metaphysical necessity.  I will attempt to show how this is a very forceful objection by exploring its immediate contention to the argument from contingency.  Then I will consider some of the further implications of Hume’s opposition, which are touched upon by Bertrand Russell in his discussions with Copleston.

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Mackie poses the question: ‘How do we know that everything must have a sufficient reason?’ And tries to show that if the answer to this question is that we do not know everything must have a sufficient reason then it becomes true that everything must not have a sufficient reason.  Even if it is assumed that at the present time the principle of sufficient reason is only known through inference it does not hold that it is not a priori truth.  There are mathematical proofs that prove that 1+1=2 a priori truth.  Would it make that truth not a priori if ...

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