What Are Some of the Implications of the Protagorean Claim that "Man is the Measure of All Things"?

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D.Hook

What Are Some of the Implications of the Protagorean Claim that "Man is the Measure of All Things"?

There is very little known about Protagoras as only fragments of his work remain. As such the fragments have no qualification to them and it is down to others such as Plato and Sextus to interpret them and give us some idea of his meaning. Perhaps the most famous of these fragments is that which reads;

"Man is the measure of all things, of things which are, that they are, and of things which are not, that they are not"(Plato- Theaetetus)1.

This theory has been the subject of many disputes, mainly due to its ambiguity, but there are a number of implications that can be drawn from it. On a fundamental level this claim is seen to be a comment on perception and reality. It had been suggested prior to Protagoras (for example, by Parmenides) that these were two very different things, and could not be reconciled. As such two people could disagree about the warmth of the wind, but neither would be correct as they could only give their limited perceptions and could not understand the true nature of the wind, in that it is neither. What Protagoras is saying in the fragment seen is that there is no difference between the perception of man (a table, for example) and the state of any object (a mere collection of atoms). If one man claims the wind is warm, and another disagrees, then they are both correct, as they are just perceiving it differently, but no one statement is truer or more valid than the other. The question then arises as to how Protagoras would explain this theory in terms of the objects themselves.

The first possible answer comes as an extension of the Hericlitian doctrine of flux. This is that all objects are never in a single state of being, but rather are constantly changing. This would still keep perception and reason reconciled (as what man perceives, exists) but reason tells him that he cannot singly classify its existence. If two people then have different views over the nature of the wind, that is because they are perceiving it at different times, from different positions. Between those times or positions it will have undergone such change that it could appear totally different to both men (such as hot and cold). They are still both personally correct in their views however, as to them it was as they said (at the time at which they made the statement). As man is the measure (as opposed to the wind itself or any other source) they can call it as they see fit.

A second explanation comes in the concept that the wind itself (or any other object) is by nature too complex for any man to grasp the whole of. As a result their perceptions are drawn to a certain aspect of the wind, dictated by their own personal condition (age, health etc). An ill, elderly man could feel a wind as cold due to the ailment he suffers from, whereas a healthy young man (used, perhaps, to colder climates) would feel the same wind as warm. They are again both correct, as they themselves (and their perceptions) are the measure of what is. The wind therefore simply is, and the man measures it as he sees fit.
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These views show all existence to be relative, and man is the only standard therein. As such the theory can be taken further still, and it can be suggested that objects only exist when (or as) they are perceived by man (man meaning mankind)(Freeman- 1966)2. Looking again at the quote can back this up, if we take the second half of the sentence. If we take 'things which are' to mean exist, then it would suggest that all things which appear to man to exist do exist, and all things which do not appear to exist to any ...

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