Does Criminal law consistently follow either an ‘objectivist’ or a ‘subjectivist’ approach to liability?

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DR. MATTHEW WEAIT c/o MR. EEKELAAR

Does Criminal law consistently follow either an ‘objectivist’ or a ‘subjectivist’ approach to liability?

How great is the difference between them?

In terms of objectivism, a person may be legitimately held liable even if they were not aware of the risks that they were taking, if it may be borne out that a prudent man would have been aware of the risks that could develop. Conversely subjectivism implies that it would be illegitimate to punish people who were not aware of the consequences of their actions, did not know what they were doing or were not in control. For example, a legally insane person should on that basis be excluded from liability, for they he would not have embodied within him a rational mind, capable of choice; and choice is grounded in what the law understands as rationality. It seems that even until as recently as now however, a formula to determine uniformly which of the two requisite approaches should be taken, and in which contexts, evades the law. The area has been the subject of much legal and philosophical debate.

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In regard to strict liability crimes, the approach is just as unsure. In criminal law there is said to be strict liability when there is liability even in the absence of mens rea and even though [his] ignorance is not attributable to any default or negligence on [his] part. This creates much controversy –the questions raised are: how can punishment in cases where the defendant believed they were doing no wrong be justified, and how can mens rea, supposedly the central vehicle by which the blameworthy are identified be sacrificed? Given the controversy that surrounds strict liability it is ...

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