Hamlet's "antic disposition" is feigned. Discuss

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Hamlet’s “antic disposition” is feigned. Discuss

Hamlet has been known as one of the greatest of Shakespeare’s plays. This is mainly because the protagonist has confused scholarly minds for centuries on end with his complex personality and muddled thoughts, which in turn leads onto his actions, or rather inaction. His incomprehensibility by many leads me only to conclude that he is mad. His irrational and rational thoughts are forever in conflict due to his state of depression and paranoia; therefore, he chooses to put on an “antic disposition” which serves as a “convenient outlet” to his “sanity slipping away” (Wilson), masking the true nature of his mind, which has become “far gone, far gone”.

In Hamlet’s introduction, we see him portrayed as a weak, melancholic man – as exemplified through his clothes of “nighted” colours. He is consumed by the grief of the passing of his father, the “dexterity” of which his mother re-marries, and her pleasure in entering the “incestuous sheets” with Claudius, Hamlet’s Uncle. This melancholic state is shown to be quite serious in his soliloquies, where he states that he wants to “Thaw and resolve [himself] into a dew”. This sorrowful talk of suicide clearly shows Hamlet’s melancholic mind which can be perceived as mad. In the Elizabethan time, Hamlet’s melancholy would have been seen as an imbalance of humour, therefore, although not as blatant as Ophelia’s madness, Hamlet would have still been perceived to be insane. Perhaps in the modern day, one would state that Hamlet is not completely conscious that he is insane, but rather that there is an underlying layer of insanity in Hamlet’s subconscious which influences the temperamental consciousness which the audience sees on stage.  Freud states that the conscious mind is similar to a fountain which rises from a great subterranean pool, which is the subconscious. Complying with this image, due to the fact that Hamlet is inclined to take the path of “self-slaughter”, which he would have done were it not for his fear of God’s “canon ‘gainst” it, I can only conclude that Hamlet is emotionally and mentally damaged. He consciously clings onto his conscious sanity by turning his hatred towards Gertrude’s “incestuous sheets”; however, he is already rotten subconsciously due to his depression.

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Stoll states that Hamlet was a “renaissance man, loving contemplation....” implying that Hamlet never intended to take part in murder and insanity, but is merely an “intellectual spirit” (Coleridge). However, the renaissance was a time of change, a revival of learning and culture. How can Stoll justify Hamlet’s thoughts of suicide with such an absurd argument as he was a “renaissance man”? His thoughts of “to be or not to be” are marks of inclination towards the path of suicide; however, suicide is nothing but an escape. It certainly does not relate to a “renaissance man” whose method of ...

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