The Soviet Union was aggressively expansionist and showed little enthusiasm for dtente. How valid is this statement?

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‘The Soviet Union developed its influence in Eastern Europe in the years 1945 – 1949 because it simply wanted to guarantee its security in the future.’ How valid is this assessment?

The statement is valid due to the fact that Russia has previously been invaded twice by Germany in 1914 and 1941 and had legitimate security fears when the Western allies began supporting Germany, that it could possibly become resurgent, also the USSR acting often in response to others around them more explicitly the USA.

As mentioned in the introduction the statement is valid due to the Russians genuine fear of another invasion as it had happened twice before and this fear was not quelled with the USA and the Western Allies helping Germany recuperate after the war increasing the possibility of a resurgent Germany which terrified the Russians. This is linked also with the USA’s globalism, Truman’s Doctrine vilified the USSR among the American people which gave Marshall aid a solid purpose, to save these countries from communist oppression.

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The Russians were also made an enemy of by Kennan’s Long Telegram coupled with Churchill’ Iron Curtain speech. The telegram stated that the Russians are ‘aggressive expansionists.’ Not only does this follow on from my previous point that the USA vilified the Soviets but also the Russians expanded gradually, this disproves a large chunk of the telegram as it cannot be aggressive expansionism if the Russians were expanding gradually and through elections often. However there is evidence that shows although the Soviet expansion was gradual, it wasn’t always done ‘properly’ like was agreed at Yalta and Potsdam, it was often ...

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