Assess the view that Philip II as king of Spain was Absolute in Theory but Limited in practice

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Kirck Allen

Using these four Passages and your own knowledge, Asses the view that Philip II as king of Spain was Absolute in Theory but Limited in practice

There is an unsurprising debate amongst historians over the concept of labelling Philip as an absolutist ruler. Also whether he was more absolute on theoretical context only or if he also displayed this in practice. Absolutism is defined as a monarch who has the power to rule freely with no opposition; a ruler who acts above the law, even as a tyrant, with lack of effective restraint.  A good example is during the 1550’s when battled against the Turks even when Spain was in Bankruptcy.  Overall, there are strong evidences of Philip practicing absolute behaviour on several occasions however; it was limited due to a number of factors.  

An area in which Philip II could be seen as absolute was his position as a monarch above the Law. According to Antonio Ortiz in Interpretation A, implied that “the kings who made the laws were above the laws, however not in the case of divine laws…” This shows that . Henry Kamen in Interpretation C would agree with what Ortiz implies as Kamen states that “Kings and Princes where instituted to govern” therefore have the power to change laws or make them. Geoffrey Parker in Interpretation D also agrees with Ortiz as quoted from the wife of a Courtier “These are the miracles that the king now wishes to perform, and they seem very like Christ”; therefore shows that Philip was absolute in theory as he was considered as an incarnation in comparison to the son of God. In respect this, Philip was known for his strong belief in the Catholic faith and defended anyone going go against the catholic faith.  Therefore as, debated by historians, as one of the most devout Catholic kings in the Fifteenth Century.

In addition to this, the Tridentine Decrees were enforced by Philip’s own action of unrestricted power, which demonstrate how much Philip was above the law in order to control the church. Another fact to be raised is that Philip, instead of the, personally appointed the Bishops. Kamen further supports this view as he states that Philip’ believed that he was “Obliged to abrogate or reform those in existence if he knew they were harmful to the state” Sending out the Spainish inquisition for example and burning thousands of heretic and protestants also show Philip’s Power above the law; which in historical context were the miles stones of suggesting that Philip was absolute in Theory due to his practices.      

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It is also important to understand the Philip’s administrative role in government and political theory in order to assessment of absolute. Philip II, as head of the government of Spain, believed in the divine right of monarchs and used this to justify a number of immoral and illegal acts, and ordering murders. As mentioned by Parker as he gives an example during the decade 1566-76, Philip had 1,200 of his Low Countries subjects executed by special legal tribunal because they disagreed with his views on religion and politics. In one sense it is agreeable that because this would portray Philip as somewhat ...

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