To what extent, does the concept of Spain's 'Golden Age' apply more specifically to the reign of Philip II than to the whole period 1474 - 1598? Justify your answer by reference to

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In what ways, and to what extent, does the concept of Spain’s ‘Golden Age’ apply more specifically to the reign of Philip II than to the whole period 1474 – 1598?  Justify your answer by reference to the similarities and differences you detect between the periods before and after the accession of Philip II in 1556?

A ‘golden age’ can be interpreted in many ways; it can be a time of great power for a monarch, or a country.  It can be described as a time when some activity is at its peak, or as a period of great peace, prosperity and happiness.  I will look at the period 1474 – 1598 to see if any of the monarchs’ reigns meet any of these interpretations of a ‘golden age’.  

The kingdom of Aragon had its own Cortes, which limited Ferdinand’s power as he was subject to the fueros.  In Castile however, the Cortes were relatively powerless; not necessary to pass laws and had little interest in taxation.  No Cortes was called between 1480 and 1498, which is indicative of Isabella’s power.  

To help keep peace and control Isabella appointed ‘corregidors’, and town councillors.  However these methods were unsuccessful; the town councils became too large and the ‘corregidors’ were disliked and were withdrawn in some cities; Segovia and Burgos, and Aragon.  The Royal Council did not increase much in Ferdinand and Isabella’s reign, as they dealt with matters in person and did not delegate to officials.  In Aragon the royal authority diminished, and it was run by viceroys, as Ferdinand spent very little time there.  There was also no permanent place of government, as Ferdinand and Isabella travelled most of their life, so the administration was wherever they were.

Charles I of Spain had many problems even before he arrived in Spain; the idea of uniting Spain was under threat.  He could not pay officials properly, so administration was corrupt, as bribery was often used.  However, Charles did make reforms in the administration of Spain; a new Council of State was set-up in 1522, and others soon followed, giving the impression of centralisation.  However, this new system had a limited effect, as they were merely extensions of Ferdinand and Isabella’s councils of Aragon and Castile for example, the Council of the Indies, and were only used to deal with new territories.  Charles was still the source of all power, and the Councils only offered advice to him.  Therefore, the administration did not change much, and changes that were made were almost ad hoc, as efficiency was only improved because of financial needs.

Philip II had many advisors, but he made the final decisions, and Philip wanted to see all paperwork, even small matters like planning permission.  This made the administration very slow, as Philip could not look at all the paperwork from all of Spain and his other territories.  However, Philip did build a castle in Madrid, where he lived and this meant that the administration was stationary, not like with his father and Ferdinand and Isabella; wherever they went.  This did improve the administration a little, but not by very much; he was too slow at making decisions and he wanted to know all the facts before he made a decision but rarely he got all of the facts.

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The administration of Spain did not contribute to any of the monarch’s reigns being a ‘golden age’.  It did not change much in the period 1474 – 1598, and the monarchs did not improve it enough; therefore this period did not experience a ‘golden age’ due to its administration.  The little changes that were made, were merely extensions of the previous monarchs, or were not for the benefit of the country; they made the administration too slow.

Foreign policy may contribute to a monarch’s reign being a ‘golden age’ as increase in land would mean more prestige and ...

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