Was Chamberlain's policy of appeasement justified?

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Was Chamberlain’s policy of appeasement justified?

Firstly, appeasement was not just Chamberlain’s policy, but a general policy executed by Britain throughout the 30s.  But it was Chamberlain who brought it to a climax and officially declared the end to appeasement on 6 April 1939.   This indicates the extent to which his policy was justifiable.  

Hitler came to power in January 1933 and in 1934 Germany began to rearm, breaking the Treaty of Versailles.  Although this was against what Britain and France ordered at the end of World War 1, Britain did not react aggressively.  They began to rearm too, but less compared to Germany.  This shows unwillingness to fight, as Britain was trying to avoid war since 1933.  The Depression also put stress on Britain financially.  This clearly shows that appeasement was not only the policy of Chamberlain, as he came to power as Prime Minister in May 1937.  However, it was Chamberlain who actually put appeasement to the test in 1938.  So it is unfair to discuss whether his policy is justifiable, as it was a policy that remained throughout the 30s.

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Appeasement is most famously attributed with Chamberlain, as he implemented the policy of the British Government in 1938, which finally brought the policy to a halt.  It can be argued that his ultimate aim was to avoid war.  “It sprang also from a passionate desire to avert the horror of war and a firm belief in the possibility of a lasting general peace.”  The ‘horror of war’ is emphasising that after witnessing and experiencing a war already, Chamberlain was certain that he did not want to invite another war: “What Chamberlain did know was that his country had been ...

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