How does Henrik Ibsen use stereotype in "A Doll's House" to challenge our pre-conception of gender roles within marriage? Should relate to bot present day and the time in which the play was set in.

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How does Henrik Ibsen use stereotype in “A Doll’s House” to challenge our pre-conception of gender roles within marriage? Should relate to bot present day and the time in which the play was set in.

        In today’s world, the stereotypical roles that males and females play in their marriages are very different from the time the play “A Doll’s House” was set in. The play reflected the English society in the mid 19th century.

        Ibsen portrayed Torvald as the stereotypical husband in those times. He was the leader and the breadwinner of the family. He was dominating, patronizing and always treated Nora with sarcasm. Similarly, Nora was portrayed as a stereotypical wife. Her character was made up of naivete. She was submissive and dependent on her husband. Their relationship was affectionate but displayed inequality between the gender and this could be expected of in those times.

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        In the first act of the play, Ibsen showed the exposition which is the introduction of the play and its characters where nothing much happens. He depicted a common family of those times and showed that the woman of the house did not give much opinion or independence or strength. He showed that Torvald was in charge of the money he earned and Nora told him how she spent the money he had given her. Torvald treated her like an inexperienced child and told her that she was a spendthrift. Moreover, she was even restricted by him to eat ‘macaroons’ ...

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