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"The defeat of the Whigs in 1841 was solely the result of their own mistakes" How accurate is this view in your opinion?
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"The defeat of the Whigs in 1841 was solely the result of their own mistakes"
How accurate is this view in your opinion?
Between 1835 and 1841, the Whigs electoral support began to drain away, which enabled the Tory Party to win the 1841 elections with a majority of over seventy percent. Their defeat can be ascribed partly due to the weakness and vulnerability of the Whig government but also partly because of the strength and recovery of the Tory opposition. I am going to explore the reasons behind the Whig defeat in detail and examine the accuracy behind the quote in the question.
One of the reasons behind the Whig defeat in 1841 was their loss of reforming zeal, after the 1832 Reform Act. Initially, they had won the day over with the 1832 Reform Act as a result of nationwide confrontation with the Tories and the House of Lords. However, Earl Grey's successor, Lord Melbourne relaxed the reformation programme. During their last few years as the ruling government, the Whigs lost opportunities to improve social conditions in towns and working conditions in factories. They had no resolved the issue of Free Trade
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