Why Were Women Given the Vote in 1918?

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Why Were Women Given the Vote in 1918?

Women were not treated as equals with men before the second half of the eighteenth century.  They had to marry, obey their husbands and have children, only receiving little education.  In the eyes of the law they had little power and men were their superiors.  For example, once they were married, everything they owned belonged to their husband, this meant that if they separated the women would be left with nothing, not even her children, as they too, belonged solely to the husband.

        Around 1850, the rights of women started to change, as laws were made to improve women’s education and rights in marriage.  However women were still not allowed to vote in the general elections.  Many women considered this as a huge prejudice, and that they would have to carry on being second-class citizens until they received the right to vote because a lot of women thought that having a say in general elections would give them more opportunities and rights.

        Before 1918, only men had the vote, even though they had to qualify by meeting the property qualification (which was someone who earned 40 shillings a year and was a freeholder).  Therefore, not all men did qualify, but many women did qualify, and as a result could vote in local elections.

        Women did have very strong arguments to give them the vote.  Here are a few of those arguments:

        As I mentioned above, people had to meet the property qualification in order to vote.  Many women did own property of the right value, and so were entitled to the vote.  The Married Women’s Property Act made even more women qualify, as they could keep their earnings.

        Women had to endure the same laws as men and also had to pay taxes, like men.  So, the women only saw it fair to be able to vote, which gave women a say in what the laws and taxes were.

        One of the arguments used against women’s suffrage was that they were considered physically and mentally too weak.  Women’s argument towards that was that women had become successful monarchs of this country, for example, Queen Elizabeth I and the present Queen of the time, Queen Victoria.  If women were suitable enough to rule the country, why were they not seen fit enough to have the vote?

        With only men voting, women’s rights and social equality would not have been seen to properly, therefore women should have the vote to represent the other half of the nation.  “No race or class or sex can have its interests represented in Parliament unless it has the vote.” (Why Women Want the Vote, taken from a leaflet, 1907).

        Women were put in the same category as lunatics and convicts (apart from those who did not meet the property qualification) by not being given the vote.  It was degrading that women were put on that same level.

        In 1884, illiterate agricultural labourers were given the right to vote, whereas educated upper-class women couldn’t.  How could these illiterates have a say in who ran the country, surely they were less suitable than an educated women.

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There were those who also opposed women getting the vote (not only men, but some women), their arguments were:

        There was a belief that women were temperamental and emotional, and those were not the sort of characteristics that someone with the vote should have.

        Many men labelled women the ‘weaker sex’.  As a result they were seen as not able to vote.  It was also said that, for example, women would not be physically strong enough to fight in a war if they voted for it.  Having the vote meant you had to do what was voted: “The voter, ...

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