How far do the sources support the idea that Germany was warlike and aggressive in its foreign policy in the years 1899-1914?
How far do the sources support the idea that Germany was warlike and aggressive in its foreign policy in the years 1899-1914?
Germany between the years 1899-1914 had shown to be warlike and aggressive in their foreign policy. Being warlike would include preparing for war or being willing to go to war. Germany was warlike in the building up of their navy. Being aggressive would include threatening gestures and provoking war e.g. Germany had acted aggressively in trying to split the Entente alliance after the Moroccan crisis.
Source one supports the view that Germany was warlike promoting the need for a strong army and navy. This is backed up with source six showing the significant increase of German expenditure on the army and navy. Despite this, the significant increases come within the years of the arms and naval races thus the source suggests Germany was aggressive up to 1900, but warlike as well as defensive after, as other powers significantly increased their armies and navies. The source is written by the German Chancellor, possibly the most crucial figure in German foreign policy, therefore appears useful. It can be argued that Germany was acting defensively but source six suggests that perhaps Germany was not only acting defensively but being ambitious as suggested in source two, “she has beaten and taken money and territory”. This contradicts the view in source one that there would be “no welfare” for Germany without a strong army or navy. However source one is a speech therefore has to purpose of to promote a particular point of view, which may affect its utility. Germany to have “beaten and taken” would have had to have had a strong army already; therefore the increased expenditure made by Germany shown in source six can be Germany acting ambitiously.
