As we know, Hamlet had been put through many traumatic events, first shown in the opening of the play, when his father, King Hamlet, was murdered. Hamlet soon has a confrontation with a ghost, who claims that ‘I am thy’ father’s spirit’, (Page 28, Act 1, Scene 5, line 9) and you have to make the assumption of whether there truly is a ghost or whether it is Hamlets mind in a state of madness.
Another argument is whether Hamlet feigned madness as a plan; there is evidence of this, and Polonious comments on it, saying that there was a “method to his madness”.
Hamlet even admits this, "I essentially am not in madness, but mad in craft." (Act Three, Scene Four, lines 206-207.), He is conscious of his actions and openly admits to madness in them, another remark from Hamlet which could possibly mean he is feigning madness is when he states to Rosencrantz and Guildenstern, "I am not mad north-north west; when the wind is southerly, I know a hawk from a handsaw.” Which I think means that he knows one thing from another and that he is bright enough to confuse his friends with this remark.
I am quite sure that Hamlet was not in fact mad, but just feigning his madness, he even admits that he is planning to do so to Horatio during Act I, scene v, lines 166-180 and I think that Hamlet does so to cover up his ‘revenge against his fathers murder’ plan. Although, there are some facts that could point to Hamlet truly being insane. For example, in Act III, scene iv, lines 105, Hamlet is in his mothers chamber, with his mother and the ghost ‘appears’ but can only be seen by Hamlet, and another example is when Hamlet tells Laertes that he killed Polonious in a “fit of madness”(Act V, scene ii, lines 236-250). Although I have to take into consideration that his signs of madness may just be feigned.
The courts perception of Hamlet is that he is mad, they have evidence to think this, Polonious already thinks that Hamlet is mad with love for his daughter Ophelia and after Hamlet accidentally murders Polonious, suspicion arises between al the court. Hamlets whole attitude towards his friends and family, especially his nature towards his mother, gives good reason for the court to think this of Hamlet.
Hamlets true state can be observed during his soliloquies as can give you an insight into his true self. In the first soliloquy, Hamlet talks about how aggravated at life he is and that if it weren’t for God’s laws he would commit suicide. He is not really morning his fathers death in this soliloquy but more his disgust for his mother for marring his uncle especially a few months after his father’s death. In this soliloquy there are no signs of madness but that of anger. In the third soliloquy, Hamlet draws attention to the ghost of his father; Hamlet admits that he is not sure if the ghost said to be his father is really who he says to be and not the creation of Satan. The fact that Hamlet is seeing ghosts may be a sign of madness but then I must consider that he is not the only one who sees the ghost. The best-known soliloquy, the fourth, is not as passionate but more subdued and still does not show any significant signs of madness. This is where I feel that Hamlet was not truly mad, as surely there would be solid signs of this in his soliloquies.
When considering the theory of how your gender effects how you cope with melancholy I feel that there may be a difference, if you take Hamlet and Ophelia, both suspected of suffering from melancholy they both seem to act on it in different ways. Hamlet seems to cope well, although at times he shows his melancholy, he appears to cope well. Whereas Ophelia seems completely insane! She performs acts that are completely random, such as handing out flowers and she begins singing songs to herself that don’t really make sense to anyone. "He is dead and gone, lady, he is dead and gone…" (IV.V.29-30). Her state of melancholy and madness leaves her in such an unstable state, which finally leads to her death. Ophelia is seen as a weak lady; therefore she portrays her melancholy differently to that of a man.
