Can the law be identified independently of morality?

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Can the law be identified independently of morality?

Amy Bond

Seminar Group H

I am going to examine whether the law, can in fact, be identified independently or morality by examining various legal concepts and whether they can be justified in today’s society. The question of the concept of law – whether law is or is not necessarily conceptually connected to morality – will determine one’s answer to questions of law. The question of the nature of the intersection between law and morality is perhaps most obvious to non legal theorists when determining the law in a hard case, but in fact the concept of law question is logically prior to any determination of 'the law' in a case: what counts as law is dependent on one's conception of law.

With regard to law, for the moment it will be enough to define law as 'the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules' (Fuller 1969, p 96). What precisely this entails will hinge upon the nature of the connection between law and morality. Legal positivists will deny that there is anything other than a contingent connection between law and morality, whilst legal idealists will be committed to the view that there is a conceptually necessary connection between law and morality. In the limited present sense of 'law', an answer to questions of separation must be justified in law because the law consists of the rules that regulate our lives. I believe that by subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules indicates the necessity of a social order that must have both moral and legal justifications.

Moral principles are located within practical reason and provide a reason why a course of action ought or ought not to be followed. It can be argued that whether or not a proposition is labelled 'moral' is irrelevant: if it aims to be justificatory, action-guiding, other-addressing, other-regarding and categorical, then it is a moral proposition.

Given that law is so similar to morality, why should law be seen as different?  The question is reasonable because the all-encompassing impact of the law on our lives is similar to the demands of morality: most importantly in the imposition of duties and the conferral of rights.  That is to say, given the likeness between law and morality, there has to be some good argument to show why the obligations imposed by law should not ipso facto be moral obligations

Hart, himself saw the separation of law and morals as central to the meaning of legal positivism: "here we shall take Legal Positivism to mean the simple contention that it is in no sense a necessary truth that laws reproduce or satisfy certain demands of morality, though in fact they have often done so". An important aspect of positivism is its persistence in seeking to keep law and morals separate.

For positivists, the mere fact that a rule violates certain standards of morality does not disqualify it as law, if the rule has been made in the appropriate way according to the rule of recognition or the sources thesis. Iniquitous rules, immoral rules, unjust rules can notwithstanding these defects being valid rules of law. And positivists usually claim that it is possible to describe the law in a value neutral manner, wherein moral evaluation plays no part. All this is often summarised in the positivist slogan that "Any content can be law".

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Thus for positivists, the very "law-ness" of a rule is a matter of pedigree not content.  What is claimed is that there is no logical, or necessary, or conceptual link between law and morality, although as a matter of contingent fact, law will often coincide or approximate with morality and morality may have a significant influence on the contingent content of law.

First, Hart said that his rule of recognition would ‘cure’ the social ‘defect’ of ‘uncertainty’ that would exist in an imaginary society without such a rule.  If we can be ‘certain’ in our identification of law, he said, ...

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