Is there any rational basis for the distinction which criminal law draws between acts and omissions? How consistently is the distinction maintained?

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Is there any rational basis for the distinction which criminal law draws between acts and omissions? How consistently is the distinction maintained?

”I will punish you as your deeds deserve”, the Lord says in the Bible. 

God told Adam to keep away of eating from the tree. Adam was disobedient and ate of the tree. Adam was removed from heaven as a consequence of his disobedience.

God told the devil to bow in front of Adam. The devil refused to do so. The devil was cursed as a consequence of his disobedience.

To make it simple. The conduct of Adam the English legal system would call an act. The conduct of the devil the English legal system would call an omission.

It is perfectly clear and well established to punish people for their deeds. But why punish people for things they have done not? Are we not all omitting to everything in the world what is not done. This would mean we all are a conditio in conditio sine qua non. Similar to the butterfly in Australia is a conditio for the storm in Singapore. Williams makes it clear: “We omit to do everything in the world that is not done”, but only “those of us omit in law who are under a duty to act”. This duty-theory is widely acknowledged in numerous cases. Hogan however calls it ill-defined. He rather would like to keep the issue “simply one of causation”. The question for him is rather more, whether the conduct of the defendant caused the actus reus and whether he did so with mens rea.

So the basis for punishing omissions may find legitimacy either in a test of causation or either in the duty-theory. As the duty-theory is more established we might focus on its actual intellectual basis.

Lord Macaulay states the penal law must “content itself with keeping men from doing positive harm and must leave to teachers of morality the office of furnishing men with motives for doing positive good”.  Thus the positive law is there to keep man away from doing something. We would say to keep Adam away from the tree. These are acts. Omissions are not part of his ratio. Positive good, i.e. moral motives, are irrelevant to the legal system. Lord Macaulay’s view is said to be the strongest authority of the Common Law system. He actually reflects and summarises the attitude the Common Law has adopted. He goes on and makes several cases (four situations) in which a duty to act may arise. Short he establishes four situations when the law prescribes man to intervene in certain circumstances, i.e. to do positive good. Now by means of contradicting himself he introduces moral into the law and establishes a moral basis for penal conviction. The role of moral is certainly not denied by many other writers and in fact has been reiterated by Lord Devlin and Lord Coleridge  to name some amongst many others. Moral is not pernecessarius a rational basis. Hence the distinction between act and omission is not established on a rational basis, but on a moral basis.

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Can a legal system keep its hands in its pockets while a father is watching its child drown in shallow waters? By means of rationality he is not drowning the child himself. By means of causation he is not causing the death either. As causation in law is not equal to causation in physics it is open to certain fictions which may be construed. Hence rationality is not given. Would the legal system be morally blind and allow the father to watch his child drown, it would destroy the very basis society lives on. A pure rational analysis of ...

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