Critically analyse whether the House of Lords in Hinks (2000) were right to find that the acquisition of the indefeasible title to property is an appropriation of property belonging to another for the purposes of s1(1) Theft Act 1968.

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Criminal Law Coursework

Critically analyse whether the House of Lords in Hinks (2000) were right to find that the acquisition of the indefeasible title to property is an appropriation of property belonging to another for the purposes of s1(1) Theft Act 1968.

The law of theft expresses society’s view of the extend to which property rights ought to be protected. It is extremely difficult to draw the line between what is acceptable and what should be subject to criminal sanctions. Therefore, in some cases the judge’s decision can be questionable and it can be argued that the courts have drawn the line in the wrong place. Hinks falls into this category.

Can a person “appropriate” property belonging to another where the other person makes him an indefeasible gift of property, retaining no proprietary interest or any right to resume or recover any proprietary interest in the property? Incredibly, following the decision of the House of Lords in Hinks, it appears that the person may even steal the property which indefeasibly belongs to him, it being sufficient that before it became his property or belonged to another and the person is considered to be dishonest in accepting the property.

The decision of the House of Lords was based on 2 cases DPP v Gomez [1993] A.C.442 and Lawrence v M.P.C.[1972] A.C.626 In both of those cases the consent of the owner has been obtained by deception. In Gomez, the title the defendant obtained to the property by means of a false representation he took from the shop was voidable to the deception, the same applied in Lawrence. In Hinks, the majority of judges took the view that judgments in Lawrence and Gomez “did not differentiate between cases of consent induced by fraud and consent given in any other circumstances”(Lord Steyn) and that it is irrelevant whether the act was done with the owner’s authority or consent.

As a result, there are several conclusions that can be drawn from Hinks as to the present meaning of appropriation.

First of all, there need not to be an assumption of all rights of the owner to amount to appropriation

Secondly, there is an appropriation when he/she obtains property by deception even if the owner of the property consents to the transfer.

Thirdly, it is irrelevant that the person receiving the property acquires an indefeasible right to the property.

The main objection to the reasoning of the House of Lords is that it confuses the boundary between the criminal conduct and merely immoral conduct which involves no inherent illegality, it contradicts section 2(1) 3 and 6 of the Theft Act 1968

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A donor making a valid gift diverts himself of all title to the property gifted in favor of the donee S.2 1) a. A person's appropriation of property belonging to another is not to be regarded as dishonest if he appropriates the property in the belief that he has in law the right to deprive the other of it The donee in accepting the gift receives her own property to which she has indefeasible title-she is the owner so there is no assumption.S.3 Any assumption by a person of the rights of an owner amounts to an appropriation, and this includes, where ...

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