Labour weakness was the most important reason for Conservative dominance from 1951 to 1964. How far do you agree?
Between 1951 and 1964, the Conservative's time in power, the Labour party were providing ineffectual opposition. One of the reasons for this was their internal disputes over issues such as unilateralism. However, there were also more important reasons for Conservative dominance, such as the economy and growing prosperity in Britain, the property owning democracy and the greater availability of credit, modern conveiniences and luxury items.
Prosperity during this time was growing, and people were in general wealthier than they had been before. A reason for this could have been the manipulation of the economy by the Conservatives; their stop-and-go stagflation lowered and rose taxes in accordance to the election date in order to gain more votes. Though they had no real long-term economic plan and their wily manipulation was often criticised, it did help them to gain votes. The wages also rose during this time meaning people were able to more freely afford luxury items and other things such as mortgages, which links to the property owning democracy. This prosperity heavily contrasted to Labour's post-war government, when the country was still in the grips of rationing and shortages, and the public's remembrance of this time would not be favourable. They would not want to vote Labour back in when they were thriving so well under the Conservative rule, meaning it was one of the important reasons for which the Conservatives dominated.